What follows is a succinct example
of one of the many issues surrounding the controversy of Christian tradition
and dogma, replacing so-called Old Testament Law:
You know, often times when we read
through the bible, second third and fourth times, etc, things pop out, that were
overlooked for years...
For example, have any of you ever
noticed how the First Gospel (Matthew) MISQUOTES Isaiah?
Let's note it (Matthew
12:14-21; KJV):
12:14 ¶ Then the Pharisees went out, and held a council against
him, how they might destroy him. 12:15 But when Jesus
knew [it], he withdrew himself from thence: and great multitudes followed him,
and he healed them all; 12:16 And charged them that they
should not make him known: 12:17 That it might be
fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias the
prophet, saying, 12:18 Behold my
servant, whom I have chosen; my beloved, in whom my soul is well pleased: I
will put my spirit upon him, and he shall shew
judgment to the Gentiles. 12:19 He shall not strive, nor cry;
neither shall any man hear his voice in the streets. 12:20 A bruised reed shall he not break, and smoking flax shall he
not quench, till he send forth judgment unto victory. 12:21 And in his name shall the Gentiles trust.
The portion in blue is a quotation
taken from Isaiah; let's note it (Isaiah 42:1-4; KJV):
42:1 ¶ Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, [in whom] my
soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he
shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles. 42:2 He shall not
cry, nor lift up, nor cause his voice to be heard in the street. 42:3
A bruised reed shall he not break, and the smoking
flax shall he not quench: he shall bring forth judgment unto truth. 42:4 He
shall not fail nor be discouraged, till he have set
judgment in the earth: and the
isles shall wait for his law.
Let's compare the two passages,
thought-for-thought:
ISAIAH: Behold my servant,
MATTHEW: Behold my servant,
ISAIAH: whom I uphold; mine elect,
MATTHEW: whom I have chosen; my beloved,
ISAIAH: [in whom] my soul delighteth;
MATTHEW: in whom my soul is well pleased:
ISAIAH: I have put my spirit upon him:
MATTHEW: I will put my spirit upon him,
ISAIAH: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles.
MATTHEW: and he shall shew judgment to the
Gentiles.
ISAIAH: He shall not cry, nor lift up,
MATTHEW: He shall not strive, nor cry;
ISAIAH: nor cause his voice to be heard in the street.
MATTHEW: neither shall any man hear his voice in the streets.
ISAIAH: A bruised reed shall he not break,
MATTHEW: A bruised reed shall he not break,
ISAIAH: and the smoking flax shall he not quench:
MATTHEW: and smoking flax shall he not quench,
ISAIAH: he shall bring forth judgment unto truth.
MATTHEW: till he send forth judgment unto
victory.
ISAIAH: He shall not fail nor be discouraged, till he have set judgment in the earth:
MATTHEW: [[ABSENT...]]
ISAIAH: and the
isles shall wait for his law.
MATTHEW: And in his name shall the Gentiles trust.
Let's further break down that last
clause:
ISAIAH: the isles
MATTHEW: the Gentiles
ISAIAH: shall wait
MATTHEW: shall...trust
ISAIAH: for his law
MATTHEW: in his name
Isaiah says "LAW" – Matthew
says "NAME"
Let's look at the Greek:
"law"
= Strong's # 3551 NOMOS {nom'-os}
"name"
= Strong's # 3686 ONOMA {on'-om-ah}
NOMOS ("law") – ONOMA
("name")
Thus, it can be demonstrated that
this corruption took place within the constructs of the Greek language.
Where the Hebrew Isaiah originally read "shall wait for his LAW," the
Greek Isaiah (LXX/Septuagint) reads, "hope in his NAME."
Wait/Trust is a minor Hebrew/Greek
translational issue, however Law/Name is an absolute
corruption.
Note Sir Lancelot Brenton's English translation of the Greek Septuagint at
Isaiah 42:4:
42:4 He shall shine out, and shall not be discouraged, until he
have set judgement on the
earth: and in his name shall the Gentiles trust.
We realize, then, how the original
Hebrew Isaiah, which had read "Law (TORAH)"
was corrupted via the Greek language, from "LAW (NOMOS)" into
"NAME (ONOMA)".
Matthew 12:21, therefore, we
conclude, is MISQUOTING Isaiah 42:4, just as sure as the two
passages read contrary in virtually all English Bibles (including the KJV), and
just as sure as the corresponding Greek Septuagint corrupted Isaiah 42:4.
As it is with the Septuagint, so
it reads with every extant Greek manuscript of Matthew 12:21, exhibiting this
same corruption and replacing [Israel's] "law" with
[Jesus'] "name". In this fact alone, it stands to reason the misquotation
has existed ever since Matthew 12 was first penned.
Finally, as an aside, doesn't it seem
rather curious, that of all possible corruptions that could have taken
place, this passage just so happens to change the concept of the
isles/nations waiting for the Law, into trusting in the name of Jesus?
How's that for a perfect and
pointed example of "Gentile"-Pauline Christianity distorting the
original words of the Prophets, with notions of Jesus replacing the Law of
YAHWEH? Ask yourself: over how many centuries have hundreds of thousands
of Christians (including you and me) read or heard this Gospel passage, never
realizing its unfaithful report of "which was spoken by Esaias the prophet"?
Anonymously submitted for your
consideration,
To the Law and the Testimony,